Rajesh K. Sharma
Advocate, Sharma Law Chamber

Rajesh K. Sharma Advocate, Sharma Law Chamber

Punjab & Haryana High Court, Chandigarh, India NCA Qualified Lawyer Licensing Process, Law Society of Ontario, Canada

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Articles: Estate Planning in Canada

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Power of Attorney (Ontario)
Sep 6, 2024 1:13 PM

Revocation of POA for Personal Care

Appointment can be revoked if the grantor retains capacity. Capacity test for revocation’s same as that for making one under section 8(2) SDA, 1992. Revocation must be in writing, AND the same formalities as making a power of attorney under section 12(2) SDA, 1992.

Disputes Between Co-Attorneys

Disputes regarding healthcare decisions may be resolved by the Public Guardian and Trustee (PGT).

Standard of Care & Attorney Compensation

An attorney for personal care must act diligently and in good faith, and must explain the attorney’s powers and duties.

Where decisions are not governed by the HCCA :

If document silent, attorney may claim compensation as prescribed by legislation, but none exists currently

Imposing conditions and/ or restrictions on attorney’s authority

It is advisable not to impose an effective date based on the onset of incapacity within the document itself, unless grantor wishes to control the mechanism used for the capacity test.

If the POA for personal care authorizes the attorney or others to use necessary or reasonable force to undertake the capacity assessment, the authorization requires the grantor to:-

at execution of the POA or within 30 days afterwards

Important Points/ Key Takeaway

Avoid Combined Powers of Attorney Forms

Although not prohibited, it is not advisable to combine powers of attorney for property and personal care due to different tests for incapacity.

Practice Issues

Lawyers must ensure the grantor’s capacity and free consent, and verify that witnesses do not fall within prohibited classes. Proper execution and safekeeping of documents are essential.

Wills in Ontario – Planning, Drafting and Execution
Sep 5, 2024 12:33 PM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

A will is a legal document that outlines how a person’s estate will be managed and distributed after death. It allows the individual, known as the testator, to specify their wishes regarding the distribution of his assets, appoint an executor to administer the estate, and designate guardians for any minor children. Without a will, the estate is distributed according to Ontario's intestacy laws, which may not align with the testator's wishes.

Individuals may create multiple wills to handle different types of assets, such as corporate and personal assets, to avoid probate fees on certain parts of the estate. Wills can be updated or revoked as circumstances change, ensuring the testator's wishes are always reflected. Having a well-drafted will ensures a smooth transition of assets and minimizes potential disputes among beneficiaries.

Lawyer Responsibilities

When drafting or preparing a will, lawyers in Ontario have several important responsibilities to ensure the document is valid, reflects the testator's wishes, and complies with legal requirements. Key responsibilities include:

Understanding the Testator's Intentions and Communication: Lawyers must thoroughly understand the testator's wishes regarding the distribution of their estate, appointment of executors, guardians for minors, and any special bequests or instructions. The lawyer must ultimately meet with the testator in person prior to the will’s being signed.

Providing Legal Advice: Lawyers advise clients on the legal implications of their decisions, including tax considerations, potential challenges, and the role of executors. They ensure that the testator understands the consequences of their instructions and suggest ways to avoid disputes or complications.

Ensuring Capacity and Voluntariness: Lawyers must assess whether the testator has the mental capacity to make a will and is acting of their own free will, without undue influence. This is crucial to ensure the will’s validity.

Drafting a Legally Compliant Will: The lawyer ensures the will meets all formal requirements under Ontario law, such as being in writing, properly signed by the testator, and witnessed by two independent witnesses. They also ensure the language is clear and unambiguous.

Managing Complexities: In cases involving complex estates (e.g., multiple properties, business interests, or blended families), lawyers may advise on the use of trusts, multiple wills, or specific bequests to handle unique circumstances.

Reviewing and Updating: Lawyers may periodically review the will with the client to ensure it remains current and reflects any changes in the client’s circumstances, such as marriage, divorce, or the birth of children.

Statutory Constraints on the Will

In Ontario, wills are subject to certain statutory constraints designed to ensure fairness, legal compliance, and protection of beneficiaries' rights. The Dependent Support Claim and the Family Law Act provide statutory protection to dependents and surviving spouses, ensuring that a will cannot completely disregard the needs of those who were financially dependent on the deceased. Some of the key statutory constraints include:

1. Dependent Support Claim (Succession Law Reform Act - SLRA)

Under the Succession Law Reform Act (SLRA) in Ontario, a dependent can make a claim for financial support from the estate if the deceased did not provide adequate support in the will. Dependents include spouses (married or common-law), children (including adult children), grandchildren, parents, and any other individuals whom the deceased was supporting or had a legal obligation to support before their death.

Adequate Provision: The testator must make “adequate provision” for dependents. If they fail to do so, the dependent can apply to the court for financial support.

Court’s Consideration: When determining support, the court considers factors such as the dependent’s financial needs, the size of the estate, the dependent’s relationship with the deceased, and the deceased’s obligations at the time of death.

Override of Will: A dependent support claim can override the deceased’s testamentary wishes, leading to a redistribution of assets to ensure dependents are properly cared for. This ensures that no dependent is left without necessary resources, even if they are excluded from the will.

2. Family Law Act (FLA) - Equalization of Net Family Property

The Family Law Act (FLA) provides significant rights to married spouses after the death of one spouse. Specifically, under the FLA, the surviving spouse can choose to either:

Take under the will, receiving whatever is left to them in the deceased’s estate, or

Elect for an equalization payment, which is similar to what they would be entitled to if the marriage had ended by divorce rather than death.

Equalization Payment: This entitles the surviving spouse to an equal division of the net family property, which is the difference between the increase in the value of each spouse’s property from the date of marriage to the date of death. If the deceased spouse’s estate is less than the surviving spouse’s equalization entitlement, the estate must make up the difference.

Election Process: The spouse must file an election with the court within 6 months of the deceased’s death. Choosing the equalization payment may result in them forfeiting what was left to them under the will.

Impact on Estate Distribution: An election under the FLA can significantly alter the distribution of the estate, especially if the equalization claim is larger than what was provided under the will. This statutory right ensures that the surviving spouse is financially protected.

Will Drafting

When drafting a will, the lawyer begins by gathering all relevant information about the client’s objectives and instructions. During the drafting stage, it is important to include certain administrative provisions that facilitate the proper administration of the estate, such as powers to sell assets, pay debts, manage minors’ shares, and make tax elections. One key provision is the authority for estate trustees to purchase estate assets for personal benefit, provided beneficiaries or the court approve.

Additionally, the lawyer may incorporate a memorandum by reference to detail specific personal effects. If the memorandum is intended to be legally binding, it must be prepared before the will is signed.

Lawyers must also avoid inadvertent distributions and address contingencies like beneficiaries predeceasing the testator (lapse). The anti-lapse provision in Ontario allows gifts to pass to a beneficiary’s descendants in certain cases unless the will specifies otherwise.

In drafting wills for couples or addressing complex family situations, the lawyer must account for simultaneous deaths, ultimate distribution scenarios, and provide for trusts when necessary. Consideration must also be given to investment authority, the rule against perpetuities, and trust accumulation limits to ensure proper management of trust assets.

Lawyers must navigate these complexities carefully to ensure the will accurately reflects the client’s intentions and complies with Ontario’s legal requirements.

Execution of will/ Signing of Will

In Ontario, the formal signing of a will requires the testator to sign at the physical end of the document in the presence of two witnesses, who must also sign. Witnesses should not be beneficiaries or married to beneficiaries, as this could void any bequest made to them unless proven that no undue influence was exerted. To avoid future complications, obtaining an affidavit of execution from one of the witnesses is recommended.

Due to the COVID-19 pandemic, alternative methods for witnessing wills were introduced, including remote witnessing via technology and the use of counterparts (separate but identical copies). The use of counterparts has become a permanent option, provided one witness is a licensee under the Law Society Act.

International wills, recognized under a global convention, offer added flexibility for clients with assets in foreign jurisdictions. Holograph wills, entirely handwritten by the testator, are also valid in Ontario and do not require witnesses, though they are generally used in emergencies. However, any handwritten portions of DIY will kits must independently reflect testamentary intent.

As of January 2022, Ontario’s courts can validate improperly executed wills if they clearly express the testator's intentions, introducing a "substantial compliance" standard to ensure a testator’s wishes are upheld despite formalities not being fully met

Will Storage

When a client keeps the original will, they should be warned of the potential issue that if the original will cannot be found at the time of death, the law may presume that the client destroyed it, leading to an assumption of intestacy. To mitigate this risk, lawyers should keep copies of the will, such as “true” or notarial copies, in their files.

If the client requests the lawyer to retain the original will, the lawyer should ensure they have appropriate secure storage, like a safe deposit box or a fire- and water-resistant filing cabinet. Additionally, the lawyer should obtain a written directive from the client allowing the lawyer to deposit the will with the local Superior Court of Justice registrar if contact with the client is lost, or if the lawyer intends to retire. Rule 74.02 of the Ontario Rules of Civil Procedure allows for such deposit by a lawyer who has custody of the will, ensuring its safekeeping in the absence of the lawyer or client

Important Points/ Key Takeaways

Who is “Owner” for making payment of Compensation
Sep 5, 2024 10:42 AM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

Supreme Court of India Expands Definition of 'Owner' Under Motor Vehicles Act for Tortious Liability

The Supreme Court's observation in the Vaibhav Jain v. Hindustan Motors Pvt. Ltd. case expands the interpretation of "owner" under Section 2(30) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (MV Act) in the context of fixing tortious liability for motor vehicle accidents.

Section 2(30) of the MV Act defines "owner" as a person in whose name the vehicle is registered, or in cases where the registered owner has transferred possession, the person who has possession or control of the vehicle. The court, in this judgment, clarified that the definition is not restricted solely to these categories, and in certain situations, the term "owner" can be applied more broadly to include a person who has command or control over the vehicle at the time of an accident. This expanded interpretation is significant in cases where determining tortious liability for compensation is at issue.

In the case at hand, the Supreme Court was reviewing a civil appeal arising from a judgment of the Chhattisgarh High Court, which had enhanced the compensation awarded to the claimant and dismissed the dealer's appeal. The two-Judge Bench, comprising Justice J.B. Pardiwala and Justice Manoj Misra, emphasized that tortious liability may be attributed to a person who is effectively in control of the vehicle, even if they are not technically the registered owner.

This ruling is notable because it broadens the scope of who can be held liable for motor vehicle accidents, potentially holding dealers or other individuals in control of a vehicle responsible for compensating victims. The court analyzed whether, at the time of the accident, the vehicle was under the control of the dealer (the appellant), thus implying that the dealer could be considered the "owner" for the purposes of liability.

In essence, the decision underscores that the statutory definition of "owner" in the MV Act is flexible and can be expanded depending on the facts of the case, with the focus being on who had command and control of the vehicle at the time of the accident. This broader interpretation ensures that individuals who exercise effective control over a vehicle cannot evade responsibility simply because they are not the registered owner, which is crucial for victims seeking compensation.

Lawyers and Ontario Human Rights Laws
Aug 18, 2024 5:43 AM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

Discrimination and Ontario Human Rights Code: Key Insights for Legal Professionals

As legal professionals, our role in the administration of justice places a special responsibility on us to uphold and protect the rights and dignity of every individual we serve. The Ontario Human Rights Code is a vital piece of legislation that ensures everyone in Ontario is treated equally, without discrimination, across various aspects of life—including employment, housing, and the provision of services, including legal services.

What Does the Code Cover?

The Code prohibits discrimination based on grounds such as race, gender, sexual orientation, age, disability, and more. Discrimination can occur directly, indirectly, or systemically, and it’s the impact of behavior—not just the intent—that determines whether an action is discriminatory.

Lawyers' Responsibilities

Employer Requirements:

For Employers with One or More Workers:

For Employers with Six or More Workers:

Why Is This Important?

Discrimination and harassment, unfortunately, still exist within the legal profession. Studies have shown that racialized licensees and other equity-seeking groups face significant challenges, highlighting the need for continuous improvement and adherence to human rights standards.

By committing to these principles and fulfilling our responsibilities as employers, we not only meet our ethical and legal obligations but also create safer, more inclusive workplaces that contribute to a more just and equitable society.

#HumanRights #LegalEthics #OntarioLaw #DiversityAndInclusion #Discrimination #LegalProfession #Lawyers #Professionalism #OntarioHumanRightsCode #WorkplaceSafety

Duties of Professionalism
Aug 17, 2024 2:59 PM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

Why Focus on Professionalism?

Professionalism is at the heart of legal practice. It encompasses integrity, civility, courtesy, and the commitment to upholding the highest standards of the profession. Understanding these duties is not just about passing the exam—it's about embodying the principles that define us as legal professionals.

What’s Included?

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question - 1

Integrity and Professional Conduct

Scenario: Alexandra is a lawyer practicing in Ontario. She is representing a client in a real estate transaction. During negotiations, Alexandra exaggerates the value of her client's property to gain an advantage over the opposing party.

Which of the following best describes Alexandra's actions under the Rules of Professional Conduct in Ontario?

A) Alexandra's actions are acceptable because her primary duty is to her client, and she succeeded in securing a beneficial deal.

B) Alexandra's actions may undermine the public's confidence in the legal profession and are inconsistent with her duty to act with integrity, which could be considered professional misconduct.

C) Alexandra's actions are a standard negotiation tactic and do not raise any issues of professional misconduct.

D) Alexandra's actions are irrelevant to her role as a lawyer as long as she did not break any laws.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 2

Courtesy, Civility, and Good Faith

Scenario: During a court proceeding, lawyer Sam continuously interrupts opposing counsel, speaks in a derogatory manner towards them, and questions the competence of the judge in a rude and condescending tone. The judge warns Sam about his conduct, but he persists.

What could be the possible consequences of Sam's behavior under the Rules of Professional Conduct in Ontario?

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A) Sam's behavior could be seen as zealous advocacy, which is acceptable as long as he is defending his client's interests.

B) Sam's actions demonstrate a failure to uphold the required standards of courtesy, civility, and good faith, which could lead to a finding of professional misconduct.

C) Sam's behavior is excusable if it was done in the best interest of his client and did not affect the outcome of the case.

D) Sam's actions are only problematic if they result in a contempt of court charge.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 3

Community Involvement and Professional Responsibility

Scenario: Karen is a lawyer in Ontario who is actively involved in her local community. She frequently volunteers to provide free legal advice at community centers and participates in local initiatives to improve access to justice. However, she also occasionally neglects her legal practice's administrative responsibilities, such as failing to respond promptly to client inquiries.

Which statement best describes how Karen's actions align with her duties under the Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) Karen's community involvement is commendable and sufficient to meet her professional obligations, even if her client communication is delayed.

B) Karen's involvement in the community demonstrates a commitment to advancing the goals of the legal profession, but she must also ensure that she meets her professional responsibilities to her clients.

C) Karen's community work excuses her from adhering strictly to administrative duties as long as she provides valuable pro bono services.

D) Karen's professional reputation is solely dependent on her client relationships, and her community involvement is irrelevant.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 4

Professionalism and Role Modeling

Scenario: Lawyer John has been practicing law for over 20 years and has a reputation for being a highly skilled litigator. However, his interactions with junior colleagues are often harsh and dismissive. He frequently belittles their work in front of others, creating a hostile work environment. Despite his success, his behavior is starting to impact the morale of the entire team.

How does John’s behavior relate to the concept of professionalism under the Rules of Professional Conduct in Ontario?

A) John's behavior is acceptable because his primary responsibility is to his clients, not to his colleagues.

B) John's behavior is problematic because it fails to meet the standards of professionalism, particularly in being a role model for colleagues and fostering a respectful work environment.

C) John's behavior is irrelevant to his professional responsibilities as long as his clients are satisfied with his work.

D) John's success as a litigator justifies his behavior towards junior colleagues.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 5

Civility and Professionalism in Court

Scenario: During a highly contentious trial, lawyer Emily, in her closing arguments, makes several personal attacks against the opposing counsel, questioning their competence and ethics in front of the jury. The judge does not intervene, but the opposing counsel files a complaint with the Law Society of Ontario after the trial.

What are the potential implications of Emily's behavior under the standards of professionalism expected of lawyers in Ontario?

A) Emily's actions are justified as part of a zealous defense of her client’s interests.

B) Emily's personal attacks could be seen as a breach of the standards of civility and professionalism, potentially leading to disciplinary action by the Law Society.

C) Emily's actions are acceptable because the judge did not intervene during the trial.

D) Emily's conduct is not relevant to her professional responsibilities as long as her arguments were legally sound.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 6

Diversity and Cultural Competence

Scenario: Lawyer Samantha is representing a client from a different cultural background. During their meetings, Samantha frequently dismisses the client’s concerns as irrelevant and refuses to consider the cultural context that influences the client’s legal decisions. The client feels disrespected and believes that Samantha does not understand or value their perspective.

Which aspect of professionalism is most at issue in Samantha’s conduct?

A) Samantha’s refusal to consider cultural context is irrelevant as long as she provides competent legal advice.

B) Samantha's conduct may violate her duty to exercise cultural competence and respect the diversity of the community as required under the Rules of Professional Conduct.

C) Samantha’s conduct is permissible because cultural considerations should not influence legal decisions.

D) Samantha’s actions are acceptable if the legal outcome is favorable for the client.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 7

Integrity and Professional Reputation

Scenario: Lawyer David has been accused of engaging in unethical practices outside of his legal practice, such as falsifying personal documents and misleading financial institutions. While these actions are unrelated to his legal work, they have come to the attention of his clients and colleagues.

How do David’s actions impact his professional standing under the Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) David’s actions are unrelated to his legal practice and should not affect his professional reputation.

B) David’s actions, even outside of his legal practice, could undermine public confidence in the legal profession and are a concern under the Rules of Professional Conduct.

C) David's personal life is separate from his professional responsibilities, so these actions have no bearing on his legal practice.

D) David's actions are only problematic if they directly involve his legal clients.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 8

Integrity and Client Trust

Scenario: Lawyer Susan is representing a client in a complex litigation matter. During the course of the proceedings, Susan discovers that she has inadvertently misrepresented a key fact to the court, which could potentially harm her client’s case if discovered. Instead of correcting the error, Susan decides to remain silent, hoping that the issue will not be uncovered.

Which statement best reflects Susan’s obligations under the Rules of Professional Conduct regarding integrity?

A) Susan should remain silent as her primary obligation is to protect her client’s interests.

B) Susan has a duty to immediately correct the misrepresentation to the court, even if it may harm her client's case.

C) Susan’s silence is justified as long as the misrepresentation was unintentional and did not result in immediate harm.

D) Susan should wait to see if the opposing counsel notices the misrepresentation before taking any action.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 9

Integrity in Financial Transactions

Scenario: Lawyer Michael is responsible for managing the trust account for his law firm. He encounters a personal financial emergency and temporarily transfers a portion of the client trust funds to his personal account, intending to repay the amount before anyone notices. He believes that this temporary use of funds does not harm any client.

What is the most accurate assessment of Michael’s conduct under the Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) Michael’s actions are acceptable as long as he intends to repay the funds and no client suffers any loss.

B) Michael’s conduct is a serious breach of his duty to maintain integrity and could lead to severe disciplinary action.

C) Michael’s actions are minor and would only be an issue if he failed to repay the funds on time.

D) Michael’s conduct is permissible in cases of financial emergency if he ensures full repayment.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 10

Integrity and Conflicts of Interest

Scenario: Lawyer Rachel is representing a client in a real estate transaction. During the negotiations, she realizes that she has a personal financial interest in the property being purchased, which could influence her advice to the client. However, she does not disclose this conflict to her client, believing she can still provide objective advice.

Which of the following best describes Rachel’s obligations under the Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) Rachel can continue to represent the client as long as she believes her advice will not be affected by her personal interest.

B) Rachel must immediately disclose the conflict of interest to her client and obtain informed consent to continue representing them.

C) Rachel’s personal interest is irrelevant as long as she provides competent legal advice.

D) Rachel should withdraw from the representation without disclosing the conflict to avoid any potential issues.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 11

Integrity and Advertising

Scenario: Lawyer David is launching a new marketing campaign for his legal services. In the advertisements, he claims to have a "100% success rate" in all cases he has handled, despite the fact that he has lost a few cases. David believes that this exaggeration will attract more clients and that it is a common practice in the industry.

What ethical issues arise from David’s advertising under the Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) David’s exaggeration is acceptable as part of marketing and does not need to be strictly truthful.

B) David’s claims are misleading and violate his duty to act with integrity, which could result in disciplinary action.

C) David’s actions are permissible as long as no client has been misled by the advertisement.

D) David’s advertising strategy is only problematic if a client files a complaint.

Fact Pattern Multiple-Choice Question – 12

Integrity and Confidential Information

Scenario: Lawyer Anita represents a high-profile client in a criminal case. After a particularly challenging day in court, she discusses some details of the case with her spouse over dinner, believing that the conversation is private and that her spouse is trustworthy.

How does Anita’s conduct relate to her duty of integrity under the Rules of Professional Conduct?

A) Anita’s conversation is acceptable because it took place in a private setting with a trusted individual.

B) Anita’s conduct violates her duty to maintain client confidentiality, which is a fundamental aspect of integrity in the legal profession.

C) Anita’s actions are not problematic as long as her spouse does not share the information with others.

D) Anita’s conduct is acceptable as long as the details discussed are not central to the case.

Answer and Explanation:

Question No. 1

Correct Answer: B

Alexandra's actions may undermine public confidence in the legal profession. The Rules of Professional Conduct require lawyers to act with integrity and honesty in all professional dealings. Even though her client benefits, her lack of integrity could be considered professional misconduct.

Question No. 2

Correct Answer: B

Sam's actions violate the Rules of Professional Conduct, which mandate that lawyers must be courteous, civil, and act in good faith with all individuals they interact with during legal practice. His behavior reflects poorly on the legal profession and could impair his ability to represent his client effectively, which could lead to a finding of professional misconduct.

Question No. 3

Correct Answer: B

While Karen's community involvement is commendable and aligns with her duty to assist in the advancement of the profession, she must also fulfill her responsibilities to her clients. This includes timely communication and managing her legal practice effectively. Both aspects are crucial to upholding the standards of the legal profession.

Question No. 4

Correct Answer: B

John’s behavior is unprofessional because, under the Rules of Professional Conduct, lawyers are expected to behave appropriately in all situations and serve as role models for colleagues. His dismissive and harsh treatment of junior colleagues fails to meet these standards and negatively impacts the work environment.

Question No. 5

Correct Answer: B

Emily's personal attacks against opposing counsel breach the standards of civility and professionalism required by the Rules of Professional Conduct. Even in contentious situations, lawyers are expected to maintain civility, and her actions could lead to disciplinary action.

Question No. 6

Correct Answer: B

Samantha's refusal to consider the client's cultural background may violate her duty to exercise cultural competence and respect diversity. The Rules of Professional Conduct require lawyers to incorporate principles of equality, diversity, and inclusion in their practice to provide respectful and effective service to all clients.

Question No. 7

Correct Answer: B

David's unethical actions, even outside his legal practice, could undermine public confidence in the legal profession. The Rules of Professional Conduct emphasize that lawyers must act with integrity in all aspects of their lives, as their conduct reflects on the profession as a whole.

Question No. 8

Correct Answer: B

Susan has a duty to correct the misrepresentation immediately. The Rules of Professional Conduct require lawyers to act with integrity, which includes being honest and forthright with the court. Failing to do so undermines the administration of justice and could constitute professional misconduct.

Question No. 9

Correct Answer: B

Michael’s conduct is a serious breach of integrity. The Rules of Professional Conduct strictly prohibit the misuse of client trust funds, regardless of intent. Such actions undermine the trust clients place in their lawyers and can lead to severe disciplinary action, including disbarment.

Question No. 10

Correct Answer: B

Rachel must disclose the conflict of interest to her client and obtain informed consent if she wishes to continue representing them. The Rules of Professional Conduct require lawyers to act with integrity and avoid situations where their personal interests could conflict with their professional duties.

Question No. 11

Correct Answer: B

David’s advertising is misleading and violates his duty to act with integrity. The Rules of Professional Conduct require lawyers to be honest in all communications, including advertising. Misleading claims can result in disciplinary action and damage the public’s trust in the legal profession.

Question No. 12

Correct Answer: B

Anita’s conduct violates her duty to maintain client confidentiality, which is essential to the integrity of the legal profession. Discussing case details with anyone outside the legal team, even in private, breaches this duty and could undermine the client’s trust and the lawyer-client relationship.

ROLLOVERS
Aug 14, 2024 1:51 AM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

What is a Rollover?

In the context of Canadian tax law, a "rollover" refers to a provision in the Income Tax Act (ITA) that allows a taxpayer to defer the immediate recognition of income, gains, or losses when transferring property or reorganizing corporate structures. The essence of a rollover is that the taxpayer can move assets without triggering a taxable event, provided that certain conditions are met. The tax on the transaction is deferred until a later date, usually when the asset is eventually sold or disposed of under non-rollover conditions.

Fact Pattern Scenario

John's Corporation Reorganization

John owns 100% of the shares of a private Canadian corporation, ABC Ltd., which he has been running successfully for 20 years. John is considering retirement and wants to reorganize his company's share structure to allow his daughter, Sarah, to gradually take over the business.

Step 1: Initial Setup

John holds 1,000 common shares of ABC Ltd., each with an adjusted cost base (ACB) of $50 and a current fair market value (FMV) of $500 per share.

Step 2: Reorganization under Section 86

John decides to reorganize the share structure by exchanging his 1,000 common shares for 500 new preferred shares and 1,000 new common shares in ABC Ltd. under Section 86 of the ITA. The preferred shares are issued to John with a redemption value equal to the FMV of his old common shares ($500,000), and the new common shares are issued with no immediate value.

Application of the Rollover:

Under Section 86, John can elect to apply a rollover, which means that the exchange of his old shares for the new preferred and common shares will not trigger any immediate capital gains tax. The ACB of the old common shares ($50,000) is transferred to the new shares on a proportionate basis.

Step 3: Future Sale

Several years later, Sarah decides to redeem the preferred shares from John. At that time, the preferred shares are worth $600,000. Because the preferred shares were issued in exchange for the original common shares under a rollover, John's cost base remains at $25,000 for the preferred shares. He will now realize a capital gain of $575,000 ($600,000 - $25,000) when the preferred shares are redeemed.

Outcome:

By utilizing the rollover under Section 86, John was able to reorganize the share structure of ABC Ltd. without triggering an immediate taxable event, thus deferring the capital gains tax until the preferred shares were redeemed.

Key Points from the Scenario:

This scenario demonstrates how rollovers can be used strategically in corporate and personal tax planning to achieve specific financial and succession goals while managing tax liabilities effectively.

Rollovers under Income Tax Act (ITA)

Here is a comparative chart of the different rollovers available under Sections 51, 73, 85(1), 85(2), 86, 87, and 88(1) of the Income Tax Act (ITA):

Section
Rollover Type
Description
Assets Covered
Key Conditions
51
Convertible Property
Allows tax-deferred conversion of securities into shares in the same corporation
Convertible securities (options, warrants, etc.)
Conversion must be according to terms of the convertible property; only shares must be received.
73
Spousal and Family Rollovers
Allows tax-deferred transfer of property between spouses or to a trust for minors
Capital property, RRSPs, RRIFs
Transfer must be to a spouse or a trust for minor children; assets must be held as capital property.
85(1)
Transfer of Property to a Corporation
Allows tax-deferred transfer of property to a Canadian corporation
Capital property, Canadian and foreign resource properties, inventory
Joint election required; the transferor must receive shares in exchange.
85(2)
Partnership Transfer to a Corporation
Allows tax-deferred transfer of partnership property to a corporation
Capital property, resource properties, inventory
The partnership must receive shares in the transferee corporation in exchange for the property.
86
Corporate Reorganization
Allows tax-deferred exchange of shares in a corporation during reorganization
Old shares in a corporation
Exchange must be for new shares in the same corporation; no other consideration should be received.
87
Amalgamations
Permits tax-deferred merger of two or more Canadian corporations
All assets and liabilities of predecessor corporations
All shareholders must receive shares in the amalgamated corporation; no property is disposed of.
88(1)
Wind-Up of Subsidiary into Parent
Allows tax-deferred transfer of assets from a subsidiary to a parent corporation
All assets of the subsidiary
The parent must own at least 90% of the subsidiary; the subsidiary must be wound up.

This chart provides an overview of the key features, assets covered, and conditions for each type of rollover under the specified sections of the ITA, which are essential for tax planning and corporate reorganization.

Capital Dividend
Aug 13, 2024 11:00 AM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

A capital dividend is a dividend that can be paid out of a corporation's Capital Dividend Account (CDA) to shareholders. The key feature of a capital dividend is that it is received tax-free by the shareholders, unlike regular dividends, which are subject to personal income tax.

Explanation with a Fact Pattern

Fact Pattern:

John is the sole shareholder and director of a private Canadian corporation, XYZ Ltd. XYZ Ltd. has been in operation for several years and has accumulated significant assets. Recently, the company sold an investment property, realizing a capital gain of $200,000. Additionally, XYZ Ltd. received $100,000 as a death benefit from a life insurance policy after the passing of a key executive. The policy's adjusted cost basis (ACB) was $20,000. John is considering paying himself a dividend and is exploring the option of declaring a capital dividend.

Understanding Capital Dividend:

A capital dividend is a dividend that can be paid out of a corporation's Capital Dividend Account (CDA) to shareholders. The key feature of a capital dividend is that it is received tax-free by the shareholders, unlike regular dividends, which are subject to personal income tax.

Components of the Capital Dividend Account (CDA):

1. Untaxed Portion of Realized Capital Gains:

2. Life Insurance Proceeds:

3. Eligible Capital Property (ECP) / Class 14.1 Property:

4. Capital Dividends Received:

Calculation of the CDA:

Total in the Capital Dividend Account (CDA): $215,000

Declaration of a Capital Dividend:

John, as the sole director, decides to pay himself a capital dividend. The amount of the capital dividend is deducted from the CDA. Suppose John decides to declare a capital dividend of $200,000.

Steps to Declare a Capital Dividend:

1. Directors' Resolution:

2. Election Form T2054:

3. Tax-Free Dividend to Shareholders:

Conclusion:

Capital dividends are a powerful tool for private corporations to distribute tax-free income to shareholders. However, strict compliance with the filing requirements is essential. If XYZ Ltd. fails to file the election (Form T2054) before paying the capital dividend, the corporation could face significant penalties. In John’s case, by correctly declaring and filing the capital dividend, he effectively receives $200,000 without any personal tax liability, utilizing the corporation’s CDA.

Types of Commercial Leases in Ontario
Jul 30, 2024 3:35 PM

By: Rajesh K. Sharma, Advocate (LinkedIn)

Commercial Leases can be classified on the basis of Subject Matter and Financial Structure.

Commercial Leases on the basis of Subject Matter

On the basis of Subject Matter, Commercial Leases can be further divided into three types:-

1. Industrial Leases:

Used for manufacturing, warehousing, and distribution. Generally simpler, with tenants often responsible for maintenance and repair. Environmental provisions are crucial due to the nature of industrial operations.

2. Office Leases:

Pertaining to spaces used for professional services. More detailed, with tenants relying on landlords for various services like HVAC and elevator maintenance. Restoration obligations are often a focus.

3. Retail Leases:

For businesses that sell goods or services directly to consumers. Highly integrated, with landlords exerting control over use, signage, and tenant mix to maintain the retail center's viability. Exclusive-use rights and continuous operation clauses are common.

The following chart outlines the key differences and characteristics of industrial, office, and retail leases.

Aspect
Industrial Leases
Office Leases
Retail Leases
Typical Provisions
Basic, with fewer additional provisions
Moderate complexity, more service dependencies
High complexity, many additional provisions
Maintenance & Repairs
More responsibilities on the tenant
Landlord provides many services, tenant depends on landlord
High integration, responsibilities vary
Environmental Issues
Significant, detailed environmental provisions
Less focus on environmental issues
Variable, depending on the type of retail space
Use Restrictions
Often fewer restrictions
Moderate restrictions
Strict restrictions to maintain tenant mix and use
Signage Rights
Usually fewer signage rights
Moderate signage rights
Critical, includes pylon sign rights
Occupancy Obligation
Typically not required
Not necessarily required
Often required to continuously occupy the premises
Relocation Rights
Rarely included
Sometimes included
Often included
Measurement of Area
To exterior face of all exterior walls
To inside face of glass or exterior walls, center line of interior walls
To exterior face of exterior walls, center line of interior walls
Common Area Inclusion
Usually no inclusion of common areas
Includes a pro-rata share of common areas
Generally no gross-up for common areas
End-of-Term Restoration
Less focus, depends on tenant's use
Often more focus, can be costly
Variable, but often includes obligations to refresh or restore
Landlord-Tenant Relationship
Less integrated, more self-sufficient
Moderately integrated
Highly integrated, akin to a partnership

Commercial Leases on the basis of Financial Structure

Commercial leases can be categorized based on their financial structure, determining how rent and additional costs are allocated between the landlord and tenant. The three main types are net leases, gross leases, and percentage leases.

1. Net Leases

Net leases require tenants to pay a base rent plus additional expenses associated with the property. There are several variations:

Example: A tenant leasing a retail space under a triple net lease would pay the base rent and also cover property taxes, insurance premiums, and maintenance costs for the building.

2. Gross Leases

Gross leases involve a single, all-inclusive rent payment that covers all property-related expenses. The landlord is responsible for paying property taxes, insurance, and maintenance costs from the rent collected.

Full-Service Gross Lease: The landlord provides a range of services, such as utilities, janitorial services, and building maintenance, included in the rent.

Example: In an office lease with a full-service gross lease, the tenant pays one monthly rent amount, and the landlord covers all other costs associated with operating and maintaining the property.

3. Percentage Leases

Percentage leases are commonly used in retail properties, where the tenant pays a base rent plus a percentage of their gross sales. This structure aligns the landlord’s income with the tenant’s business success.

Standard Percentage Lease: The tenant pays a lower base rent and a percentage of gross sales over a specified breakpoint.

Modified Percentage Lease: Similar to the standard, but the percentage rent is calculated differently or includes other specific conditions.

Example: A tenant in a shopping mall might pay a base rent plus 5% of gross sales exceeding a certain amount each month, providing the landlord with additional income if the tenant’s business performs well.

4. Mixed Financial Structures

Some leases combine elements of the above structures, creating semi-gross leases or escalating leases. These arrangements might fix certain costs for the initial period and include provisions for increases over time, often tied to inflation or other indices.

Example: A semi-gross lease might include base rent with fixed utility costs for the first year, with adjustments for inflation in subsequent years.

Difference Between a Lease and a Licence
Jul 30, 2024 1:00 PM
Estate Planning - Will | Canada
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Power of Attorney in Ontario
Jul 6, 2024 11:54 PM
Guardians for Mentally Incapable Persons in Ontario
Jul 7, 2024 4:07 PM

Introduction

Substitute Decisions Act, 1992 (SDA) was enacted by the Ontario government after a lengthy and detailed review of the law governing powers of attorney and substitutute decision making in Ontario. A comprehensive statutory framework was created governing substitute decision making with respect to both property and personal care.

It also included the concept of a “statutory guardian of property” and established the complete procedure for court-appointed guardians of (i) property, and (ii) the person.

Difference between Guardian and Attorney

A guardian is different from an attorney. An attorney is chosen by a person, before becoming incapable, to act on their behalf. A guardian is appointed through a legal process after a person’s incapacity.

A guardian of property is someone who is appointed by statute (the Substitute Decisions Act, 1992) or the court to look after an incapable person’s property. Both the guardian and the incapable person must be at least 18 years old. A court may appoint a guardian of the person to make decisions on behalf of an incapable person in some or all areas of personal care, usually because there is no power of attorney for personal care. The guardian must be at least 16 years old.

Procedure of appointment of Guardian

Standard procedure” and the “summary disposition procedure” are two ways for the appointment of court-appointed guardian of property or personal care.

One major difference between the two “Standard procedure” and the “summary disposition procedure” is that standard procedure requires a hearing, and the summary procedure is “over the counter,” meaning the application is read by a judge in chambers without a hearing. Instead, two assessments (at least one by an official “assessor”) are required in the summary disposition procedure.

Requirements and procedure for the appointment of guardian of property under both “Standard procedure” and the “summary disposition procedure” is detailed below:-

Guardian of Property
Standard Procedure
Summary Procedure
Hearing
Hearing is required
No hearing is required. Over-the-counter application is read by judge in chamber, but the application must contain statements from at least two medical assessors, OR one assessor and another person who saw the person within one year before issuance of notice of application.
Documents required
1. Proceeding commenced by notice of application (SDA s. 22(1)), seeking a finding that the person is incapable of managing property, and, consequently, it is necessary to appoint a guardian of property. 2. Personal service of notice of application on respondents (SDA s. 69(1), (6), (8), (9): ●        the alleged incapable person; ●        the person’s guardian; ●        attorney under continuing POA; ●        attorney for personal care; ●        Public Guardian and Trustee; AND ●        the proposed guardian of property, if not the applicant 3. Some relatives must be served by ordinary mail (SDA s. 69(6)), but they are not automatically respondents, including spouse/ partner, adult children; parents; AND adult siblings. 4. Applicant’s affidavit is required unless the applicant intends to call viva voce evidence. Affidavit evidence is not to be on “information and belief”, except for uncontentious facts. 5. Separate management plans must be filed for guardianship of property, and guardianship of the person. 6. Medical affidavits are generally required as a practical matter, but not necessary in SDA: EITHER a capacity assessment by a duly-qualified assessor, OR at least two affidavits from physicians (Re Avery).
Notice of application, and applicant’s affidavit with exhibits as the core of the application record. Additional capacity assessment is required. ●       The person must meet with the alleged incapable person and provide statement in a prescribed form. The assessors use Capacity Assessment, s.7, Form A, and the non-assessors use General, Form 8. ●        Assessor must be a member of a college listed in Capacity Assessment regulation. ●        Assessment must have been made during the six months before the notice of application was issued. ●        Prescribed form of statement for the assessor includes a statement that indicates they are of the opinion that it is necessary to appoint a guardian of property to make decisions on the allegedly incapable person’s behalf. The basis of this opinion must be set out.
Service of Application Record
Personal service is required upon respondents. Ordinary mail is required upon specified relatives.
Notice of application issued after assessment. Procedure same as standard.
Response to Service of Application Record
Respondent who wish to participate in the proceeding must deliver a notice of appearance. Specified Relatives can become parties at any stage.
Procedure same as standard.
Court Hearing and Judgment
Finding is required that the person is incapable, and, consequently, it is necessary for decisions to be made on person’s behalf (SDA s. 25(1)). Judgment should include specific statement appointing guardian (SDA s. 22(1)). Joint or multiple guardians of different property are possible. Judgment must detail any security to be posted. Guardian of property must adhere to management plan (SDA s. 32(10)), but guardian can apply to court for directions (SDA s. 39(1)). Judgment should also address costs.
Judges are reluctant to declare incapacity without a hearing. After time for delivery of notices of appearance has expired, applicant can require that the registrar submit the documents directly to a judge, and the judge may make a judgment without a hearing (SDA, s.77(1)). The registrar must do so IF the applicant certifies that (SDA, s.77(2)): ●        no notice of appearance has been delivered; ●        appropriate documents have been submitted; AND ●        at least one statement indicates that its maker is of the opinion that it is necessary for decisions to be made on the person’s behalf by a person who is authorized to do so. NOTE that notice of appearance must be filed “forthwith”, so hard to know when to certify that it has not been filed. Draft judgment is not necessary in application. ●        But if applicant is seeking costs payable out of the property, it must be set out in a draft judgment. Three possible dispositions: (i) judgment without a hearing; (ii) additional evidence or hearing required; OR (iii) order a trial.

Requirements and procedure for the appointment of guardian for personal care under both “Standard procedure” and the “summary disposition procedure” is detailed below:-

Guardian of the Person
Standard Procedure
Summary Procedure Standard procedure + two assessments by assessors
Documents required
1. Notice of application, seeking a finding that the person is incapable of some/all personal care functions set out in SDA s.45, AND a finding that the person needs decisions made on her behalf by an authorized person. 2. Applicant’s affidavit explaining application for full or partial guardianship of the person. Section 45 lists the categories of decision-making. 3. A capacity assessment/ medical affidavits (no statutory requirement, but generally required by the court to record a finding of incapacity). 4. Proposed guardian’s consent to act. 5. Section 70(2)(c) statement. 6. Guardianship plan using General, Form 3 (s.70(2)(b)). 7. Consents from relatives are helpful, but not necessary. 8. Optional third-party statements from persons knowing the alleged incapable person (SDA s.71(1)), and in contact with the alleged incapable person during the preceding 12 months. Preferably sworn as affidavits.
Standard procedure + two assessors must meet the alleged incapable person, perform an assessment of the person’s capacity during the six months before the notice of application is issued, AND provide statements in the prescribed form. At least one statement must specify that the assessor believes that the person needs decisions made on her behalf by an authorized person. Medical affidavits may be necessary, but it isn’t clear. Preparing application record is the same as the standard procedure for guardianship of person.
Service
Same as guardianship of property.
Same as standard procedure for guardianship of person.
Response
Same as guardianship of property.
Same as standard procedure for guardianship of person.
Court hearing and judgment
Considers criteria in SDA ss 55(2)(a)-(b) and 57(3)(a)-(c). Judgment must specify full or partial guardianship (SDA s. 58(3)). ●   Full only if person incapable of all functions in SDA s. 45). ●   If partial, judgment must specify the functions. Judgment may appoint joint guardians or multiple guardians to act for mutually exclusive time periods (513R). Judgment may specify limited time period (SDA s. 58(2)(a)) or conditions (SDA s. 58(2)(b)). Guardians may have authority to apprehend the person with police assistance (SDA s. 59(3)), to change the person’s custody or access arrangements, or to consent to adoption (SDA s. 59(4)(b)). Guardian must act in accordance with guardianship plan (SDA s. 66(15). Good practice to get judgement direction that states this specifically.
Same as summary disposition procedure for guardianship of property.   At least one of the two assessors’ statements must indicate assessor is of opinion that the person needs someone authorized to make decisions on the person’s behalf (Capacity Assessment s.7, Form B).   Three possible disposition since same as summary disposition procedure for guardianship of property.

Health Care Consent Act, 1996 (HCCA) and Substitute Decision-makers

Consent can be given or refused on behalf of incapable person based on a ranked list of priority

(s. 20 of the HCCA), from most priority to least:

HCCA, s.20(2) – person can only consent or refuse to consent to treatment on behalf of an incapable person IF :-

If the incapable person is at least 16 years old and objects to admission to a hospital or psychiatric facility, then consent can only be given by

(i). a guardian of the person with the authority to consent to the admission, OR

(ii). an attorney for personal care with authorizing provision. (s. 24, HCCA)

Commercial Leasing in Ontario
Jul 28, 2024 2:36 PM

Lease Priority:

A lease is an interest in land and must be registered to provide notice to third parties and to protect the tenant's rights.

If a lease is registered before a mortgage, it generally takes priority over the mortgage. Conversely, if the mortgage is registered before the lease, the mortgage typically has priority.

Mortgage Priority:

A mortgage is a security interest in the property, and its priority is determined by the date of registration. The first registered mortgage generally has priority over later registered interests, including leases.

Common-Law Position

The common-law position on the interplay between leases and mortgages was notably addressed in two key cases:

  1. Goodyear Canada Inc. v. Burnhamthorpe Square Inc.:
  2. This case affirmed the principle that a tenant under a lease that has priority over a mortgage is bound by the lease if the mortgagee enters into possession. The mortgagee must honor the lease and cannot oust the tenant.

    Conversely, if the mortgage has priority over the lease, the mortgagee is not bound by the lease and can terminate the tenant's occupation upon default.

  3. 1420111 Ontario Ltd. v. Paramount Pictures (Canada) Inc.:
  4. This case reinforced the principles established in Goodyear, emphasizing that tenants must be aware of the registration dates of leases and mortgages to understand their rights and obligations.

Non-Disturbance Agreements

To mitigate the risks associated with the priority of mortgages over leases, tenants often seek non-disturbance agreements from mortgagees.

These agreements provide that if the landlord defaults on the mortgage and the mortgagee takes possession, the mortgagee will not terminate the lease or disturb the tenant's occupancy.

In exchange, the tenant agrees to "attorn" to the mortgagee, recognizing the mortgagee as their new landlord under the same lease terms.

Practical Implications and Steps for Protection

(a). Title Search and Registration:

Tenants should conduct a thorough title search before signing a lease to identify any existing mortgages and their priority.

Registering the lease or a notice of lease can protect the tenant's interest and establish priority over subsequent mortgages.

(b). Negotiating Non-Disturbance Agreements:

Tenants should negotiate non-disturbance agreements with existing and future mortgagees to ensure their lease rights are protected if the landlord defaults.

Including a clause in the lease that requires the landlord to obtain non-disturbance agreements from mortgagees can provide additional security.

(c). Subordination, Non-Disturbance, and Attornment (SNDA) Agreements:

SNDA agreements are comprehensive documents that combine subordination, non-disturbance, and attornment provisions. They outline the relationship between the tenant, landlord, and mortgagee, ensuring clarity and protection for all parties.

(d). Mortgagee Rights:

Mortgagees may require tenants to acknowledge the priority of the mortgage and agree to subordination clauses, making the lease subordinate to the mortgage. This ensures that the mortgagee’s interests are protected in case of landlord default.

Fact Pattern:

John, the landlord, takes out a mortgage from Bank A and later leases part of the property to Sarah. Sarah registers her lease after the mortgage is registered. John defaults on the mortgage, and Bank A takes possession.

Analysis:

Priority: Since the mortgage was registered before the lease, Bank A’s interest takes priority. Bank A is not bound by Sarah's lease and may choose to terminate it.

Non-Disturbance Agreement: If Sarah had obtained a non-disturbance agreement, Bank A would be obligated to honor her lease, allowing her to remain in the property despite the foreclosure.

5. Registration of Commercial Lease Deed in Ontario

The registration of a commercial lease deed in Ontario is a vital process that secures the legal standing of the lease, establishes priority, and provides notice to third parties. By registering a lease or notice of lease, tenants and landlords protect their interests and ensure that the lease terms are recognized and enforceable in the event of property transactions or disputes.

The registration of a commercial lease deed in Ontario is a crucial step to protect the interests of both landlords and tenants. It ensures that the lease is legally recognized and provides public notice of the tenant’s rights under the lease.

Here’s an overview of the registration process and its significance:

Importance of Registration

Legal Recognition:

Registration provides formal recognition of the lease, making it legally binding and enforceable against third parties.

It ensures that the lease is documented in public records, providing transparency and clarity.

Priority and Protection:

Registering a lease establishes the priority of the tenant’s interest in the property. This is particularly important if there are multiple interests or claims on the property.

It protects the tenant’s rights in the event of a sale or transfer of the property, ensuring that the new owner is aware of and bound by the existing lease.

Notice to Third Parties:

Registration serves as notice to potential buyers, lenders, and other interested parties about the existence and terms of the lease.

This prevents disputes and ensures that all parties are aware of the tenant’s occupancy and rights.

Registration Process

(1). Preparation of Lease or Notice of Lease:

The lease or a notice of lease must be prepared, detailing essential terms such as the parties involved, the property description, the lease term, and any significant provisions.

A notice of lease is a summarized version that omits sensitive information like rent amounts but includes enough details to inform third parties of the lease's existence and key terms.

(2). Execution and Attestation:

The lease or notice of lease must be signed by the landlord and the tenant. In some cases, it may also need to be witnessed or notarized.

Proper execution ensures the document is legally valid and ready for registration.

(3). Submission to the Land Registry Office:

The executed lease or notice of lease is submitted to the Land Registry Office in the jurisdiction where the property is located.

The document is reviewed for completeness and accuracy before being accepted for registration.

(4). Payment of Fees:

Applicable registration fees must be paid at the time of submission. These fees vary based on the type of document and the jurisdiction.

(5). Issuance of Registration Number:

Once registered, the lease or notice of lease is assigned a registration number, and an official record is created in the land registry.

The registration number serves as a reference for future searches and legal proceedings.

Legal Framework

Registry Act (Section 70(2)):

Under the Registry Act, a lease of property does not need to be registered to bind third parties if the lease term does not exceed seven years and there is actual possession under the lease.

Land Titles Act (Section 44(1)(4)):

In the land titles system, a property is deemed encumbered by an unregistered lease if the lease has a period yet to run that does not exceed three years and if there is actual occupation under the lease.

Practical Considerations

A. Standard Lease Terms:

Most commercial leases prohibit tenants from registering the lease itself but permit the registration of a notice of lease to protect confidentiality and sensitive information.

Landlords typically reserve the right to approve the content of the notice of lease before registration.

B. Estoppel Certificates:

Tenants may also use estoppel certificates to provide evidence of the lease terms and their rights without disclosing sensitive details in the public registry.

Estoppel certificates confirm the status of the lease and are often requested by lenders or prospective purchasers.

6. Landlord Security

In commercial lease agreements, landlords often seek various forms of security to ensure that tenants fulfill their financial and contractual obligations. This security is crucial for mitigating risks associated with tenant defaults, such as non-payment of rent or failure to maintain the property. Here is a detailed overview of the types of security landlords may require and the legal considerations involved in commercial lease deeds in Ontario.

Types of Landlord Security

(a). Security Deposits

Purpose: Security deposits provide a financial buffer for landlords against potential losses due to tenant defaults, property damage, or unpaid rent.

Amount: Typically, security deposits amount to one to three months' rent, but the specific amount can vary based on negotiations.

Usage: Landlords can use security deposits to cover unpaid rent, repair damages beyond normal wear and tear, and address other breaches of the lease agreement.

Return Conditions: The conditions for returning the security deposit at the end of the lease term should be clearly outlined in the lease agreement.

(b). Prepaid Rent

Purpose: Prepaid rent serves as a guarantee for future rental payments, often covering the first and last months of the lease term.

Usage: It is applied to the rent due at the beginning and end of the lease term, reducing the risk of non-payment during these periods.

Legal Considerations: Landlords must ensure that the lease clearly specifies the application of prepaid rent and conditions for its return if applicable.

(c). Guarantees and Indemnities

Purpose: Guarantees and indemnities provide additional security by holding a third party responsible for the tenant’s obligations under the lease.

Guarantors: Common guarantors include corporate affiliates, business partners, or individual principals of the tenant.

Indemnity vs. Guarantee: An indemnity obliges the indemnifier to cover losses directly, while a guarantee requires the guarantor to fulfill the tenant's obligations if the tenant fails to do so.

Legal Standing: Guarantees and indemnities must be in writing and clearly outline the scope of the guarantor’s or indemnifier’s responsibilities.

(d). Letters of Credit

Purpose: A letter of credit is a financial instrument issued by a bank that guarantees the tenant’s payment obligations up to a specified amount.

Usage: Landlords can draw on the letter of credit if the tenant defaults, providing immediate funds to cover losses.

Renewability: The lease should specify the terms for renewing the letter of credit to ensure continuous coverage throughout the lease term.

(e). Personal Property Security Interest (PPSA)

Purpose: A personal property security interest allows landlords to claim a security interest in the tenant's personal property located on the leased premises.

Registration: Landlords must register the security interest under the Personal Property Security Act (PPSA) to perfect the interest and ensure priority over other creditors.

Scope: The security interest can cover various assets, including inventory, equipment, and fixtures, providing the landlord with collateral to recover losses in case of default.

7. Reporting to the Client

Effective reporting to the client is a critical aspect of managing commercial lease transactions. It ensures that the client is fully informed about the lease terms, their obligations, and any potential issues that might arise. This process involves providing clear, concise, and comprehensive information to the client, tailored to their level of sophistication and involvement in commercial leasing.

PART 5 - Remedies to the Landlord and Tenant under the Commercial Tenancies Act

In the context of commercial lease agreements, both landlords and tenants have various remedies available to address breaches or defaults by the other party. These remedies are designed to enforce the terms of the lease, ensure compliance, and provide recourse in the event of disputes.

Remedies Available to Landlords

1. Remedies for Tenant Defaults

Monetary Defaults

Notice and Cure Period: Most leases provide a specific period for the tenant to cure monetary defaults, such as unpaid rent. The landlord must provide written notice of the default, specifying the amount due and the time frame to rectify the default.

Termination and Re-Entry: If the tenant fails to cure the default within the specified period, the landlord may terminate the lease and re-enter the premises. The landlord may change the locks or physically take possession of the property.

Distress (Distraint): This self-help remedy allows the landlord to seize and sell the tenant's goods on the premises to recover unpaid rent. It is a drastic measure and must be executed with care to avoid legal complications.

Non-Monetary Defaults

Notice and Cure Period: Similar to monetary defaults, non-monetary defaults (e.g., failure to maintain the premises) require the landlord to provide written notice and a reasonable cure period.

Specific Performance: The landlord can seek a court order compelling the tenant to perform their obligations under the lease, such as making necessary repairs.

Injunctive Relief: The landlord can seek an injunction to prevent the tenant from engaging in prohibited activities or to enforce specific terms of the lease.

2. Other Remedies

Claim for Damages

Legal Action: The landlord can sue the tenant for damages resulting from the breach, including lost rent, repair costs, and other expenses incurred due to the tenant’s default.

Mitigation of Damages: After terminating the lease, the landlord must make reasonable efforts to re-let the premises to mitigate losses. The landlord can claim damages for the difference between the original rent and the rent received from a new tenant.

Security Enforcement

Security Deposits: The landlord can apply the tenant’s security deposit to cover unpaid rent or repair costs resulting from the tenant’s breach.

Guarantees and Letters of Credit: The landlord can enforce guarantees or draw on letters of credit provided by the tenant to recover losses.

3. Relief from Forfeiture

Court Application: The tenant can apply to the court for relief from forfeiture, seeking to nullify the lease termination. The court has discretion to grant relief if it deems it just and equitable, considering factors such as the tenant's efforts to remedy the default and the hardship faced by both parties.

Remedies Available to Tenants

1. Remedies for Landlord Defaults

Failure to Provide Possession

Specific Performance: The tenant can seek a court order compelling the landlord to provide possession of the premises as agreed in the lease.

Damages: The tenant can claim damages for any losses incurred due to the landlord's failure to provide possession, such as relocation costs or lost business opportunities.

Breach of Quiet Enjoyment

Injunctive Relief: The tenant can seek an injunction to stop the landlord or third parties from interfering with their quiet enjoyment of the premises.

Damages: The tenant can claim damages for any losses resulting from the breach of quiet enjoyment, such as lost profits or business disruption.

2. Other Remedies

Repair and Deduct

Self-Help Remedy: If the landlord fails to perform necessary repairs, the tenant may carry out the repairs and deduct the cost from future rent payments. This remedy must be explicitly allowed in the lease agreement.

Rent Abatement

Partial Reduction: If the premises become partially unusable due to the landlord's actions or inaction, the tenant may be entitled to a rent reduction proportionate to the unusable portion of the premises.

Termination of Lease

Fundamental Breach: If the landlord's breach is so severe that it fundamentally undermines the lease, the tenant may terminate the lease and vacate the premises. This is typically a last resort and requires clear evidence of a fundamental breach.

Court Application: Similar to the landlord, the tenant can apply for relief from forfeiture if they believe the lease termination was unjust. The court will consider the tenant's conduct, the nature of the default, and the potential impact on both parties.

PART 6 - Common Lease Issues in Commercial Lease Deeds

Commercial lease agreements in Ontario often involve various complex issues that can impact both landlords and tenants. Addressing these issues effectively in the lease deed is crucial to ensure a smooth leasing relationship and to prevent disputes. Here is a detailed overview of some of the most common lease issues encountered in commercial lease deeds in Ontario.

1. Operating Costs

Definition and Allocation: Operating costs, also known as additional rent, typically include expenses related to the maintenance, repair, and operation of the property, such as utilities, property taxes, insurance, and common area maintenance (CAM).

Gross-Up Clauses: Many leases include gross-up clauses that allow the landlord to adjust the operating costs to reflect what they would be if the property were fully occupied. This ensures that the landlord recovers a fair share of expenses from all tenants.

Exclusions: Tenants often negotiate exclusions from operating costs, such as capital expenditures, costs of correcting structural defects, and expenses covered by the landlord’s insurance or warranties.

2. Repairs, Maintenance, and Restoration

Responsibilities: Leases should clearly delineate the responsibilities for repairs and maintenance between the landlord and tenant. Typically, the tenant is responsible for interior maintenance, while the landlord handles exterior and structural repairs.

Restoration Obligations: At the end of the lease term, tenants may be required to restore the premises to their original condition. This can include removing leasehold improvements and repairing any damage beyond normal wear and tear.

Disputes: Ambiguities in the lease regarding repair obligations can lead to disputes. It is essential to clearly define what constitutes ordinary maintenance versus capital repairs.

3. Insurance

Coverage Requirements: Leases usually stipulate the types of insurance coverage required for both the landlord and tenant. This includes property insurance, liability insurance, and business interruption insurance.

Allocation of Risk: Leases often include provisions that allocate risk between the parties through indemnities and releases. Landlords typically seek to shift as much risk as possible onto tenants.

Mutual Waivers: Some leases include mutual waiver clauses, where each party waives their right to claim against the other for certain types of losses covered by insurance.

4. Assignment and Subletting

Landlord’s Consent: Most leases require the tenant to obtain the landlord’s consent before assigning the lease or subletting the premises. The consent should not be unreasonably withheld, delayed, or conditioned.

Conditions and Restrictions: The lease may specify conditions under which assignment or subletting is permitted, such as the assignee’s financial stability and the proposed use of the premises.

Recapture Rights: Some leases grant the landlord the right to terminate the lease and recapture the premises if the tenant seeks to assign or sublet, effectively allowing the landlord to re-lease the space at potentially higher rates.

5. Use of Premises

Permitted Use: The lease should specify the permitted use of the premises. This is crucial in retail leases where the landlord may want to control the tenant mix and prevent competition.

Prohibited Uses: Leases often list prohibited uses to maintain the character of the property and prevent activities that could harm other tenants or the property’s reputation.

Continuous Operation: Retail leases often include clauses requiring tenants to continuously operate their business during specified hours to maintain the vitality of the shopping center.

6. Options to Renew or Extend

Renewal Terms: The lease should specify whether the tenant has an option to renew or extend the lease term and the conditions for exercising this option.

Market Rent: Renewal terms often include provisions for determining the rent during the renewal period, commonly based on the current market rate.

Notice Periods: The lease should clearly define the notice period required for the tenant to exercise their renewal or extension option to avoid disputes over timing.

7. Good Faith and Fair Dealing

Implied Duty: In Canadian contract law, including Ontario, there is an implied duty of good faith and fair dealing, as established by the Supreme Court of Canada in Bhasin v. Hrynew. This duty requires parties to act honestly and not mislead each other about their contractual performance.

Lease Clauses: While good faith is implied, some leases explicitly include clauses requiring both parties to act in good faith in fulfilling their obligations, providing additional clarity and reducing the risk of disputes.

Jul 5, 2025 4:26 AM